Timeline for Does $|(X\times\{0\}) \cup (X\times\{1\})| \leq |X|$ for $X$ infinite imply ${\sf AC}$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Feb 5, 2016 at 10:46 | vote | accept | Dominic van der Zypen | ||
| Feb 5, 2016 at 10:23 | comment | added | Asaf Karagila♦ | There's probably a question about this on this site as well. | |
| Feb 5, 2016 at 10:23 | comment | added | Asaf Karagila♦ | Also math.stackexchange.com/q/393196/622 and other questions on the "Linked" menu to the right in that link. | |
| Feb 5, 2016 at 10:12 | answer | added | bof | timeline score: 4 | |
| Feb 5, 2016 at 9:12 | history | asked | Dominic van der Zypen | CC BY-SA 3.0 |