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Feb 2, 2016 at 21:20 comment added YCor Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/544093, mathoverflow.net/questions/79702
Feb 2, 2016 at 21:16 comment added YCor It's indeed a classical conjecture of Kaplansky (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kaplansky%27s_conjecture) that if $K$ is a field , the units of $KG$ are the multiples of elements in the standard basis, and is well-known and easy when $G$ is abelian. In particular if $K$ has 2 elements, the obvious homomorphism $G\to KG^\times$ is an isomorphism (which is the right statement, just saying that they are isomorphic is weaker and much less interesting).
Feb 2, 2016 at 20:44 comment added Yonatan Harpaz I just realized it doesn't matter. If $x \in \mathbb{K}[H]$ is invertible then there exists a finitely generated subgroup $H' \subseteq H$ such that $\mathbb{K}[H'] \subseteq \mathbb{K}[H]$ contains both $x$ and $x^{-1}$, and so we may as well assume that $H$ is finitely generated. The answer hence is yes.
Feb 2, 2016 at 20:32 comment added Ofra @YonatanHarpaz No, I'm not assuming that H is finitely generated.
Feb 2, 2016 at 20:31 comment added Yonatan Harpaz Are we assuming $H$ to be finitely generated or not necessarily? In the finitely generated case the answer is yes.
Feb 2, 2016 at 19:55 review Close votes
Feb 2, 2016 at 23:34
Feb 2, 2016 at 19:42 history edited Ofra CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 2, 2016 at 19:42 comment added Ofra oops thanks, I will change my question.
Feb 2, 2016 at 19:37 comment added Johannes Hahn No, obviously not, because $\mathbb{K}^\times \leq (\mathbb{K}[H])^\times$.
Feb 2, 2016 at 19:27 history asked Ofra CC BY-SA 3.0