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Apr 29, 2010 at 16:07 comment added Minhyong Kim All that you write is correct. To be frank, the analytic triviality has always seemed a bit mysterious to me as well. Regarding the triviality of $H^2$, I guess the easiest way to see this is to note that a compact Riemann surface minus some points is homotopic to a graph.
Apr 29, 2010 at 15:03 comment added Qfwfq P.S.: ah, I see now why top. H^2 is trivial: a noncompact differentiable $n-$manifold doesn't have a fundamental class.
Apr 29, 2010 at 14:57 comment added Qfwfq Misprint: in the above comments, of course, I actually meant $H^1(X^{an}-p,\mathcal{O}_{X-p}^{an, \times})\rightarrow H^2(X^{an}-p,\mathbb{Z})$ is an $\cong$.
Apr 29, 2010 at 14:53 comment added Qfwfq (continued) Thus, if what I've written makes sense, we have shown an easy example in which there are algebraically nontrivial line bundles that are analytically trivial. So the possibility of using holomorphic functions instead of only algebraic would give more "degrees of freedom" to trivialize an alg. nontrivial bundle. Are there any mistakes in my reasoning? thank you.
Apr 29, 2010 at 14:52 comment added Qfwfq (continued) MinhyongKim: could you please elaborate a bit why every affine curve would have trivial "topological $H^2$" (I suppose you mean the $H^2(X^{an},\mathbb{Z})$, right?)... Anyway, given this fact and the above isomorphism, one would conclude that the analytic Picard group of $X-p$ would be trivial. (to be continued)
Apr 29, 2010 at 14:42 comment added Qfwfq (continued) On the other hand, workin analytically, we can write down the exponential sequence and, taking into account that $X-p$ is affine hence Stein, we have that the first Chern class is an isomorphism $H^1(X^{an}, \mathcal{O}_X^{an, \times})\rightarrow H^2(X^{an}, \mathbb{Z})$. (to be continued)
Apr 29, 2010 at 14:35 comment added Qfwfq (continued) If every line bundle on $X-p$ was algebraically trivial, that is, if $Pic(X-p)=0$, then $Pic(X)$ would be isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}$, which is well known not to be the case. (to be continued)
Apr 29, 2010 at 14:31 comment added Qfwfq (continued) So, take $X$ an elliptic curve; then $X−p$ is an affine smooth algebraic curve ($p$ is any closed point of $X$ ). Now, applying Proposition 6.5 and Corollary 6.15 from Hartshorne to the present case, we have the exact sequence: $0\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}\rightarrow Pic(X) \rightarrow Pic(X-p) \rightarrow 0$ (to be continued)
Apr 29, 2010 at 14:25 comment added Qfwfq @MinhyongKim: I'm getting very confused, as your comment seems (superficially) to contradict my example with the elliptic curve minus one point. My goal in that example was to provide an example of an affine alg curve with algebraically nontrivial line bundles on it. (to be continued)
Apr 29, 2010 at 13:41 comment added Minhyong Kim Yes, an affine algebraic curve has trivial topological $H^2$, so all line bundles are topologically trivial. But then, they are also Stein spaces, so this implies that line bundles are analytically trivial.
Apr 29, 2010 at 12:42 comment added Qfwfq @MinhyongKim: what do you mean by "this" in "this implies analytic triviality"? You mean that on an affine algebraic variety (e.g. an affine curve) having trivial (topological) first Chern class implies being holomorphically trivial, right?
Apr 29, 2010 at 10:39 comment added David E Speyer Just to expand a little on Pete's point: $\mathbb{RP}^1$ is isomorphic to $x^2+y^2=1$. Over the complex numbers, the former is a sphere and the latter is a sphere with two punctures, but the punctures are complex conjugates of each other, so you don't see them in the real picture. I think you should be able to write the Mobius band explicitly as $\{(x,y,u,v) : \ x^2+y^2=1 \ (u^2-v^2)y=2uv x \}$. In other words, it is the set of pairs of complex numbers $(z,w)$ such that $z$ has norm $1$ and $\mathrm{arg}(z)=2 \mathrm{arg}(w)$.
Apr 29, 2010 at 8:56 comment added Minhyong Kim The professor may have been talking about the analytic category. What's true is that affine varieties over $C$ are Stein manifolds, so that coherent analytic sheaf cohomology vanishes as well. Then the exponential sequence for $O_X$ implies that an analytic line bundle is determined by its topological first Chern class. In the case of an affine algebraic curve, for example, this implies analytic triviality.
Apr 29, 2010 at 8:16 comment added Qfwfq @Pete: yes, O^* is not a coherent sheaf simply because it is not a sheaf of O_X-modules, but just a sheaf of abelian groups.
Apr 29, 2010 at 8:14 comment added Max Flander ah that explains it
Apr 29, 2010 at 8:11 comment added Pete L. Clark @maxmoo: There is a related true result here: a coherent sheaf on an affine variety $X$ is acyclic for sheaf cohomology: its higher cohomology groups are all zero. One might be tempted to deduce from this that $\operatorname{Pic}(X) = H^1(X,\mathcal{O}_X^{\times}) = 0$. But this is not valid: $\mathcal{O}_X^{\times}$ is not a coherent sheaf.
Apr 29, 2010 at 8:10 comment added Qfwfq Affine algebraic varieties behave trivially w.r.t. cohomology of coherent sheaves, but their geometry can still be nontrivial (even from the purely topological viewpoint).
Apr 29, 2010 at 8:07 comment added Pete L. Clark Your comment about $\mathbb{R} \mathbb{P}^1$ is correct, but may be confusing to some. One of the interesting features of real algebraic geometry is that $\mathbb{R} \mathbb{P}^n$ is (also) the real analytic manifold associated to a smooth affine variety. So there is, in this sense, no distinction between affine and projective varieties over $\mathbb{R}$.
Apr 29, 2010 at 8:05 comment added Max Flander thanks for that, the thing about line bundles being trivial was told to me today by a topology professor, i guess she was confused.
Apr 29, 2010 at 8:03 vote accept Max Flander
Apr 29, 2010 at 7:58 history edited Qfwfq CC BY-SA 2.5
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Apr 29, 2010 at 7:47 history answered Qfwfq CC BY-SA 2.5