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Jan 27, 2016 at 16:14 vote accept John Gowers
Jan 27, 2016 at 13:29 answer added user57888 timeline score: 14
Jan 27, 2016 at 12:20 comment added Emil Jeřábek ... as the objects never live in the same model. With recursive ordinals as a common representation that is reasonably absolute, we can ask about the same ordinal in two different theories.
Jan 27, 2016 at 12:19 comment added Emil Jeřábek Basically, yes. But more precisely, you first take a recursive representation of the ordinal, and then ask if the theory proves it well-founded (which, for ZFC, might involve unwinding the recursive definition into the von Neumann representation that ZFC internally uses for ordinals). One reason for this is to have a comparison across theories: say, ZFC has an ordinal it calls $\omega_3$, and a fancy theory X (that does not look at all like set theory) has an ordinal it calls PSM9. Are they the same? Which one is longer? These would be meaningless questions, ...
Jan 27, 2016 at 12:15 answer added Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine timeline score: 7
Jan 27, 2016 at 12:02 comment added John Gowers @EmilJeřábek Ah, I see. So really it is a double condition: the smallest ordinal that the theory can prove is recursive, but can't prove is well founded.
Jan 27, 2016 at 12:00 comment added Emil Jeřábek The proof theoretic ordinal is the smallest recursive ordinal the theory cannot prove well-founded. ZFC thinks it can prove the well-foundedness of crazy huge ordinals, but it does not know how to represent them by recursive relations on the integers.
Jan 27, 2016 at 11:47 history asked John Gowers CC BY-SA 3.0