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Jan 17, 2016 at 3:28 comment added Noah Schweber @ToddTrimble Ah, yes, I should have seen that.
Jan 17, 2016 at 3:21 comment added Todd Trimble @NoahSchweber You can use the compactness theorem to show that every set can be totally ordered, and the compactness theorem requires only the ultrafilter principle (i.e., BPIT). You probably don't need it, but other readers who are curious can read this: ncatlab.org/nlab/show/compactness+theorem#totalorder
Jan 17, 2016 at 3:17 vote accept CommunityBot
Jan 17, 2016 at 2:55 answer added bof timeline score: 8
Jan 17, 2016 at 1:18 comment added user81529 @bof Oh wow, didn't realise you can do that. Brilliant proof for that implication! (:
Jan 16, 2016 at 22:53 history reopened Joel David Hamkins
Daniel Moskovich
Yemon Choi
Joonas Ilmavirta
Stefan Kohl
Jan 16, 2016 at 22:23 comment added user81529 @bof Yea, when I started constructing the graph I've overlook that as well. Somehow I feel that some modification should be able to prove the well-ordering principle but I have not succeeded so far.
Jan 16, 2016 at 22:20 comment added bof @GuoXianYau Oh, right, I overlooked that. It seems that your graph is not connected if $X$ is an infinite set; there is no edge joining a vertex in $\{v_S:S\text{ is finite}\}$ to a vertex in $\{v_S:S\text{ is infinite}\}.$ Since the graph is not connected, statement 1 does not apply.
Jan 16, 2016 at 22:06 comment added user81529 @bof In my construction not all edges are in the graph, for example, $v_{\emptyset}$ and $v_{\{x,y\}}$ does not have an edge joining them. Anyway, thanks for the help, proving well-ordering principle directly from spanning tree has been puzzling me for a while, at least I was wondering if it is even possible to prove it directly.
Jan 16, 2016 at 22:02 comment added bof @GuoXianYau It seems unlikely that a spanning tree will be directly useful in a proof of the well-ordering theorem. The graph you suggested in the question has an obvious spanning tree, no choice needed: the "star graph" in which each vertex $v_S (\emptyset\ne S\subseteq X)$ is joined by an edge to $v_\emptyset.$ This tree is not going to help you well-order $X.$
Jan 16, 2016 at 21:47 comment added user81529 @JoelDavidHamkins Yes, I should have mentioned that I have the proof for that implication. Thanks for voting to reopen though. (:
Jan 16, 2016 at 21:45 comment added user81529 @bof I agree with your construction, in fact, i believe using existence of spanning tree to prove axiom of choice directly is standard question in infinite graphs. I am curious about whether or not there is a direct way of proving well-ordering without having to prove axiom of choice.
Jan 16, 2016 at 15:53 review Reopen votes
Jan 16, 2016 at 22:53
Jan 16, 2016 at 15:39 comment added Joel David Hamkins I think the question is on-topic for MO, and that @bof's comment should be an answer. I have voted to re-open.
Jan 16, 2016 at 8:14 history closed Andrés E. Caicedo
Noah Schweber
András Bátkai
Tony Huynh
Sam Nead
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Jan 16, 2016 at 7:40 comment added Wojowu See theorem 2.
Jan 16, 2016 at 7:21 history edited bof CC BY-SA 3.0
corrected spelling
Jan 16, 2016 at 7:11 comment added bof @NoahSchweber It's all over my head but Wikipedia says that the ordering principle is weaker than the order-extension principle, which is weaker than the Boolean prime ideal theorem, which is weaker than the axiom of choice.
Jan 16, 2016 at 6:43 comment added Noah Schweber Note also that a well-order is very different from a total order. I do not know whether "every set can be totally ordered implies the axiom of choice.
Jan 16, 2016 at 6:37 comment added bof As the well-ordering principle is equivalent to the axiom of choice, forget about well-ordering and just prove directly that (1) implies AC. Let $A_i,i\in I$ be a given family of nonempty sets. Let $A=\bigcup_{i\in I}A_i$. Assume w.l.o.g. that $I\cap A=\emptyset.$ Let $G=(V,E)$ where $V=I\cup A$ and $$E=\{\{u,v\}:u,v\in A,u\ne v\}\cup\{\{i,v\}:i\in I,v\in A_i\}.$$Let $T$ be a spanning tree for this connected graph. Choose $a\in A.$ For each $i\in I$ the tree $T$ contains a unique path $P_i$ from $i$ to $a,$ and $P_i$ contains a unique edge $\{i,v_i\}$ where $v_i\in A_i.$
Jan 16, 2016 at 6:21 review Close votes
Jan 16, 2016 at 8:15
Jan 16, 2016 at 6:06 comment added Noah Schweber This is a good question, just not for this site - you should ask it at math.stackexchange.
Jan 16, 2016 at 2:46 history asked user81529 CC BY-SA 3.0