Skip to main content
12 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jan 15, 2016 at 3:23 vote accept bof
Jan 14, 2016 at 17:50 answer added Ilya Bogdanov timeline score: 5
Jan 11, 2016 at 12:56 comment added bof @GordonRoyle If you allow the empty set as a member of the family, yes. For no particular reason, I stated Frankl's conjecture in the equivalent form with nonempty sets.
Jan 11, 2016 at 12:51 comment added Gordon Royle Doesn't Frankl's conjecture just ask for an element in at least half the sets? (That is, not strictly more than half.)
Jan 11, 2016 at 9:43 comment added joro This is my mistake, I misread.
Jan 11, 2016 at 9:19 comment added joro I misunderstood, sorry. Indeed mine is not counterexample.
Jan 11, 2016 at 8:57 comment added joro OK. $|\mathcal P(\{1,2\})|=2^2=4$. If you don't count the empty sets it makes it $3$. You divide by $2$.
Jan 11, 2016 at 8:46 comment added joro What has $\mathcal P(\{1,2\})$ to do with my claim?
Jan 11, 2016 at 8:41 comment added joro Maybe I misunderstood, but there 8 sets in the power set. $3$ is in half of the sets and not in the other half, so you have equality. If you don't count the empty set, this make $3$ not in $3$ sets and your inequality still doesn't hold.
Jan 11, 2016 at 7:37 comment added joro Isn't the powerset of {1,2,3} counterexample to both?
Jan 11, 2016 at 6:52 history edited bof CC BY-SA 3.0
added 7 characters in body
Jan 11, 2016 at 6:33 history asked bof CC BY-SA 3.0