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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:19 history edited CommunityBot
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Jan 3, 2016 at 7:16 vote accept mike
Jan 3, 2016 at 4:58 answer added Alexandre Eremenko timeline score: 3
Jan 3, 2016 at 4:32 comment added Alexandre Eremenko Where is $r$ in your statement for entire functions?
Jan 3, 2016 at 2:42 comment added mike @ChristianRemling. You are right. I only need to prove that $h(z)=f(z)-g(z)$ has only real zeros. Let $f_m(z),g_m(z)$ be the cut off version of the products up to $m$ terms. I think that I might be able to prove that $f'(x)g(x)-g'(x)f(x)>0,x\in\mathbb{R}$. But it might be hard for me to prove that $f'_m(x)g_m(x)-g'_m(x)f_m(x)>0$. Thanks again for the advice.
Jan 3, 2016 at 2:25 comment added Christian Remling I'm not sure I understand all the details fully (you want to assume (1), (2), so these are not general entire functions?), but I think such a version follows immediately from the one you quoted. If $f-g$ has a non-real zero, then the same holds for the approximating polynomials when you cut off the products.
Jan 3, 2016 at 2:17 history edited mike CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 3, 2016 at 2:03 history asked mike CC BY-SA 3.0