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Jan 11, 2017 at 0:07 comment added Jason Starr @MinseonShin. I do not actually remember the argument I had in mind, but your argument sounds great.
Jan 10, 2017 at 22:11 comment added Minseon Shin OK here's one argument but there's probably an easier way. Set $y := \frac{x^{p}}{1-x^{p-1}}$. Since $k[x,\frac{1}{1-x^{p-1}}]$ is integral over $k[y]$ (namely $x^{p}+yx^{p-1}=y$ and $\frac{1}{1-x^{p-1}} = x^{p-1}+yx^{p-2}+1$) and $k[y]$ is normal, the inclusion $k[y] \subseteq k[x,\frac{1}{1-x^{p-1}}] \cap k(y)$ is an equality. Moreover $(k(x))^{\mathbb{Z}/(p)} = k(y)$.
Jan 10, 2017 at 21:22 comment added Minseon Shin @jason-starr How do you conclude that the ring of invariants is $k[\frac{x^{p}}{1-x^{p-1}}]$? I see that $\frac{x^{p}}{1-x^{p-1}}$ is the product of the orbit of $x$ under the $\mathbb{Z}/p$-action, namely $\{x,\frac{x}{1+x},\dotsc,\frac{x}{1+(p-1)x}\}$.
Dec 24, 2015 at 23:28 history edited Jason Starr CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 24, 2015 at 20:20 comment added Jason Starr @LisaS. Thank you for catching the mistake. I have now corrected the exponent.
Dec 24, 2015 at 20:20 history edited Jason Starr CC BY-SA 3.0
Corrected exponent per suggestion of Lisa S.
Dec 24, 2015 at 19:09 comment added Lisa S. Thanks. In your last formula, shouldn't the numerator be $-x^{2p -2}$ instead of $-x^p$.
Dec 24, 2015 at 19:01 history edited Jason Starr CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 24, 2015 at 18:34 history edited Jason Starr CC BY-SA 3.0
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S Dec 24, 2015 at 16:17 history answered Jason Starr CC BY-SA 3.0
S Dec 24, 2015 at 16:17 history made wiki Post Made Community Wiki by Jason Starr