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Dec 31, 2014 at 13:22 history made wiki Post Made Community Wiki by Todd Trimble
Apr 27, 2010 at 17:49 comment added Owen Biesel If that's the question, the answer is no. Let $G$ be a cyclic group of prime order - then the requirement that a function $G\rightarrow G$ pull back subgroups to subgroups is very weak (it implies only that no nonzero element maps to zero), and most such functions won't be group homomorphisms.
Apr 27, 2010 at 11:41 comment added Qfwfq As for the 2, I think he's actually asking whether a map of sets, such that the inverse image of every subgroup is a subgroup, is actually a group homomorphism.
Apr 27, 2010 at 1:19 history answered Sammy Black CC BY-SA 2.5