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Dec 28, 2015 at 1:55 comment added Noah Schweber @ToddTrimble That's a very fair point. (Off the top of my head, one reason to care is in case you want this expression to be part of a larger one - e.g. if you want to say something like, "$\forall \overline{x}\exists \overline{y}([x_i>y_i]\wedge ...)$", at which point it's not enough to just express it as a collection of sentences. Of course, you're right that the OP should say this.)
Dec 28, 2015 at 1:51 comment added Todd Trimble @NoahSchweber Well, it's likely you're right, but (1) OP has never said so, and ought to; (2) I wonder what the point would be for that (why does OP care, what's the motivation, etc.).
Dec 28, 2015 at 1:38 comment added Noah Schweber @ToddTrimble True; however, I understood the OP as asking for a logic which could express this as a single sentence.
Dec 17, 2015 at 20:52 comment added Todd Trimble You can have infinitely many axioms for a first-order theory. So a list of axioms like $x_0 > y_0$, $x_1 > y_1$, ... is perfectly acceptable. Of course the theory might not be finitely axiomatizable, but I don't see that requirement in your question.
Dec 17, 2015 at 18:45 answer added cody timeline score: 1
Dec 17, 2015 at 8:14 comment added none Wouldn't you usually write $x(i)$ and $y(i)$ as functions rather than $x_1, x_2, \dots, y_1, y_2,\dots$ as infinite collections of variables? Then in your expression $x_k$ and $y_k$ would just be alternate notation for $x(k)$ and $y(k)$.
Dec 17, 2015 at 4:40 history edited Yoav Kallus CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 17, 2015 at 3:32 answer added Noah Schweber timeline score: 7
Dec 17, 2015 at 3:26 review First posts
Dec 17, 2015 at 3:34
Dec 17, 2015 at 3:24 history asked user84230 CC BY-SA 3.0