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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
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Dec 16, 2015 at 1:08 vote accept Thomas Benjamin
Dec 15, 2015 at 21:25 comment added Thomas Benjamin Also, whatever happened to rules of substitution in logic where variables can be substituted for other variables? In $\forall$x $\forall$y $\exists$z $\exists$w(x$\frown$y=z$\frown$w) is there some reason one cannot substitute 'y' for 'z' and 'x' for 'w' (since you took "$x$ for $z$ and $y$ for $w$)? In the case of ||||| (since x,y,z,and w take such strings as values), why can't x=|, y=||||, z=|||, and w=||? Certainly those values satisfy my original axiom-- would my original axiom be deemed a tautology then?
Dec 15, 2015 at 19:36 comment added Thomas Benjamin (cont.) 'proper' first-order way to express this fact as an axiom. Thanks in advance.
Dec 15, 2015 at 19:23 comment added Thomas Benjamin @EmilJeřábek: My interest is in models where '$+$' is interpreted as concatenation. Here is what I am attempting to do: consider an arbitrary string of |' s, say, |||||. It , through concatenation, can be expressed several different ways (e.g. |$\frown$||||, ||||$\frown$|, |||$\frown$||, etc.). If one allows for '0' to be interpreted as the empty string '$\epsilon$', it seems to me that $\epsilon$$\frown$| = |$\frown$$\epsilon$ (if one deems $\epsilon$$\frown$| to be meaningless one could always add this as an axiom--is this your point?). In any case let me know if there is a
Dec 15, 2015 at 11:37 comment added Emil Jeřábek Oh, and if you meant $\forall x,y\,\exists z,w\,(x+z=w+y)$, that still doesn't imply commutativity or $0+x=x$. For instance, if $M$ is any model of (1)-(5) (e.g., violating $0+x=x$), let $M'$ be a model with domain $M\cup\{\infty\}$, where $a+\infty=\infty+a=\infty$ for all elements $a$, and $S(\infty)=\infty$. Then $M'$ is a model of (1)-(5) and of your extra axiom. The axiom also holds in the model in my linked answer.
Dec 15, 2015 at 10:39 comment added Emil Jeřábek ??? That axiom is a tautology (take $x$ for $z$ and $y$ for $w$).
Dec 15, 2015 at 2:04 comment added Thomas Benjamin @EmilJeřábek: If you would interpret '$+$' as '$\frown$' and add to the fragment of Robinson arithmetic under consideration the following axiom $\forall$x $\forall$y $\exists$z $\exists$w (x+y=z+w), the resulting theory would prove commutativity and $\forall$x (0+x=x).
Dec 14, 2015 at 17:28 comment added Emil Jeřábek Oh, of course: the theory does not prove $\forall x\,(0+x=x)$, because full Robinson arithmetic does not.
Dec 14, 2015 at 17:17 comment added Emil Jeřábek I also sense there is some confusion going on, since the question uses the word “undecidable” in two different senses, almost adjacent to each other. So let me stress that the linked question concerned the algorithmic undecidability of the Robinson arithmetic without multiplication, not its incompleteness (which should be obvious, as the theory does not include the Presburger division axioms such as the one mentioned by SJR).
Dec 14, 2015 at 17:10 comment added Emil Jeřábek As I mentioned in a comment to the linked answer, $\forall x,y\,(x+y=y+x)$ works as an example. The model in my answer does not even satisfy $\forall x\,(x+1=1+x)$ (that is, $\forall x\,(S(0)+x=S(x))$.) Even simpler, I see no reason the theory should prove $\forall x\,(0+x=x)$, though this would require a different model.
Dec 14, 2015 at 15:00 answer added Fan Zheng timeline score: 1
Dec 14, 2015 at 14:08 comment added Joel David Hamkins I added a link to the previous question. Also, @SJR, why not post your comment as an answer?
Dec 14, 2015 at 14:07 history edited Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 3.0
Added link to question
Dec 14, 2015 at 13:24 comment added Sidney Raffer In your language you can say that every element is even or odd. This is true in the non-negative integers under addition but false for the set of polynomials with non-negative leading coefficients (under addition, with successor defined in the obvious way.)
Dec 14, 2015 at 12:50 review Close votes
Dec 15, 2015 at 5:19
Dec 14, 2015 at 9:38 history asked Thomas Benjamin CC BY-SA 3.0