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Dec 11, 2015 at 22:47 comment added Pushpendre Are $U,V$ orthonormal? If $U,V$ are orthonormal and $UV^T = I_n$ then isn't $U = V$? In that case $A$ is symmetric and $x,y$ originate from the same subspace right? In that case isn't this the basic Rayleigh inequality?
Dec 11, 2015 at 17:16 comment added Surb Note that such a spectral decomposition may not exists e.g. when $A$ is the zero matrix.
S Dec 11, 2015 at 15:14 history suggested Sebastian Goette
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Dec 11, 2015 at 15:03 review Suggested edits
S Dec 11, 2015 at 15:14
Dec 11, 2015 at 15:01 comment added Sebastian Goette Do you have a proof for that claim? I see this for the first time (but I am not an expert on this).
Dec 11, 2015 at 11:50 review First posts
Dec 11, 2015 at 16:06
Dec 11, 2015 at 11:50 history asked Edinah Koffi Gnang CC BY-SA 3.0