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Nov 12, 2017 at 9:12 history edited Ivan Izmestiev CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 9, 2015 at 9:18 answer added Matthias Ludewig timeline score: 11
Dec 8, 2015 at 13:12 answer added Mikhail Katz timeline score: 4
Dec 8, 2015 at 13:09 history edited oneyear CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 8, 2015 at 13:07 comment added oneyear @SebastianGoette: Thank you for your comments, I correct my mistake. I have read several textbooks on Riemannian geometry, but I have not find this theorem. So can you show where I can find a direct proof? Or can you give one?
Dec 8, 2015 at 13:01 history edited oneyear CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 8, 2015 at 11:40 review Close votes
Dec 10, 2015 at 17:46
Dec 8, 2015 at 11:22 comment added Sebastian Goette For $y\in SM$ let $\gamma_y(t)=\exp(ty)\in M$ be the unique geodesic with initial velocity $y$. Then $\Phi_t(y)=\dot\gamma_y(t)\in SM$ defines the geodesic flow. In particular, both $\Omega\subset SM$ and $\Phi_t(\Omega)\subset SM$. You should find a proof of the invariance of the Liouville measure in any good textbook on Riemannian geometry.
Dec 8, 2015 at 11:07 comment added user1688 The measure lives on the sphere bundle, the flow acts on the sphere bundle, so the meaning of invariance should be clear.
Dec 8, 2015 at 9:21 history asked oneyear CC BY-SA 3.0