Timeline for How to prove Liouville measure is invariant under geodesic flow?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
10 events
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Nov 12, 2017 at 9:12 | history | edited | Ivan Izmestiev | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 9, 2015 at 9:18 | answer | added | Matthias Ludewig | timeline score: 11 | |
Dec 8, 2015 at 13:12 | answer | added | Mikhail Katz | timeline score: 4 | |
Dec 8, 2015 at 13:09 | history | edited | oneyear | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 8, 2015 at 13:07 | comment | added | oneyear | @SebastianGoette: Thank you for your comments, I correct my mistake. I have read several textbooks on Riemannian geometry, but I have not find this theorem. So can you show where I can find a direct proof? Or can you give one? | |
Dec 8, 2015 at 13:01 | history | edited | oneyear | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 8, 2015 at 11:40 | review | Close votes | |||
Dec 10, 2015 at 17:46 | |||||
Dec 8, 2015 at 11:22 | comment | added | Sebastian Goette | For $y\in SM$ let $\gamma_y(t)=\exp(ty)\in M$ be the unique geodesic with initial velocity $y$. Then $\Phi_t(y)=\dot\gamma_y(t)\in SM$ defines the geodesic flow. In particular, both $\Omega\subset SM$ and $\Phi_t(\Omega)\subset SM$. You should find a proof of the invariance of the Liouville measure in any good textbook on Riemannian geometry. | |
Dec 8, 2015 at 11:07 | comment | added | user1688 | The measure lives on the sphere bundle, the flow acts on the sphere bundle, so the meaning of invariance should be clear. | |
Dec 8, 2015 at 9:21 | history | asked | oneyear | CC BY-SA 3.0 |