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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:57 history edited CommunityBot
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Apr 26, 2010 at 4:44 comment added Qiaochu Yuan I can prove that a nontrivial finite subgroup of SU(2) has nontrivial center without the classification, which means that your answer is what I need; thanks! The proof is as follows: if V is irreducible, then dim V = 2 divides the order of G, so -I is in G. Otherwise, V is a sum of two one-dimensional representations and G is abelian.
Apr 26, 2010 at 4:19 vote accept Qiaochu Yuan
Apr 25, 2010 at 23:22 comment added Qiaochu Yuan I'm using this result as a lemma in the proof of the classification, so I'm afraid I can't use that result.
Apr 25, 2010 at 23:12 comment added Dylan Thurston Sorry, I misread your question. I edited my answer, but I did resort to classification of the finite subgroups of SU(2).
Apr 25, 2010 at 23:12 history edited Dylan Thurston CC BY-SA 2.5
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Apr 25, 2010 at 22:25 comment added Qiaochu Yuan Ah. Yes; I had also come to this conclusion by playing around with characters. Can it be shown that a finite subgroup of SU(2) has nontrivial center without already knowing what they are?
Apr 25, 2010 at 22:14 comment added David Jordan He's answering the contra-positive. If $Hom(V,W^*\otimes W)$ is non-zero, then Z(G) acts trivially on $V$, you agree?
Apr 25, 2010 at 22:13 comment added Dylan Thurston Perhaps you were confused about which direction I was proving? I tried to clarify. As a special case of what I wrote (or what Ben explained), for any non-trivial rep $V$ of any abelian group, $\mathrm{Hom}(W, W \otimes V)$ is always trivial.
Apr 25, 2010 at 22:12 history edited Dylan Thurston CC BY-SA 2.5
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Apr 25, 2010 at 22:02 comment added Qiaochu Yuan The center of the cyclic group of order n certainly doesn't act trivially, but the result is still true for that case...?
Apr 25, 2010 at 21:53 history answered Dylan Thurston CC BY-SA 2.5