Timeline for For a representation V of a finite group G, when is Hom(W, W⊗V) trivial for all irreps W?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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| Jun 2, 2011 at 19:56 | comment | added | Geoff Robinson |
Another easy remark is that if $g_1,g_2,\ldots,g_k$ is a full set of representatives for the conjugacy classes of $G$, then Ben's condition is equivalent to $\sum_{i=1}^{k} \chi_{V}(g_i) =0.$
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| Jun 2, 2011 at 1:54 | history | edited | Ben Webster♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Apr 25, 2010 at 21:13 | comment | added | Qiaochu Yuan | Thanks! I'm going to hold out for an answer more specific to the case I care about, but if one isn't forthcoming I'll accept this answer. | |
| Apr 25, 2010 at 20:27 | history | answered | Ben Webster♦ | CC BY-SA 2.5 |