Timeline for Exact formula for $\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty}\frac1{n^2+1}$
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
13 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Nov 27, 2022 at 0:04 | history | edited | LSpice | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Typo, while this is on the front page
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Dec 8, 2015 at 13:46 | vote | accept | Feldmann Denis | ||
Dec 1, 2015 at 6:53 | history | edited | Benjamin Dickman | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
WolframAlpha correctly evaluates the series; I have fixed its mistranscription.
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Nov 30, 2015 at 21:58 | answer | added | Fedor Petrov | timeline score: 9 | |
Nov 30, 2015 at 21:01 | review | Close votes | |||
Nov 30, 2015 at 22:55 | |||||
S Nov 30, 2015 at 20:30 | history | suggested | Leucippus | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added some latex work
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Nov 30, 2015 at 20:08 | review | Suggested edits | |||
S Nov 30, 2015 at 20:30 | |||||
Nov 30, 2015 at 19:10 | answer | added | Alexandre Eremenko | timeline score: 16 | |
Nov 30, 2015 at 15:30 | comment | added | Fedor Petrov | Integral not of f(x), but of $f(x)\cot \pi x$ | |
Nov 30, 2015 at 15:27 | answer | added | Gerald Edgar | timeline score: 16 | |
Nov 30, 2015 at 15:15 | comment | added | Gerald Edgar | There is no relation between existence of closed form for $\int f(x)\;dx$ and closed form for $\sum f(n)$. | |
Nov 30, 2015 at 15:13 | comment | added | Fedor Petrov | Yes. We may interpret $f(n)$ as a residue of function $f(x)\cot (\pi x)$ in a point $n$. Then note that sum of residues of this function equals to 0 as integral over appropriate large circuit tends to 0. | |
Nov 30, 2015 at 14:59 | history | asked | Feldmann Denis | CC BY-SA 3.0 |