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Apr 16, 2017 at 23:07 vote accept Stanley Yao Xiao
Nov 30, 2015 at 8:06 comment added David Zhang Why the downvote? The question seems reasonable to me.
Nov 30, 2015 at 8:02 answer added user83446 timeline score: 7
Nov 30, 2015 at 6:15 answer added nfdc23 timeline score: 3
Nov 30, 2015 at 4:04 comment added Stanley Yao Xiao @VesselinDimitrov Thanks, that argument is perfectly fine for me!
Nov 30, 2015 at 3:56 comment added Vesselin Dimitrov OK, then there is a $k > 1$ (dividing $d$ as you require) which works for infinitely many $n$ - and you may apply Siegel's theorem (finiteness of integral points of an irrational affine algebraic curve - in this case, the components of $y^k = f(x)$), with the conclusion that $f$ is a $k$-th power. If you want a more "elementary" proof, my best guess is the DLS argument applies just as well in your situation.
Nov 30, 2015 at 3:48 comment added Stanley Yao Xiao I saw the paper which states your claim in the first paragraph, but that is not what I wanted to know about. I apologize for the vagueness of the original question.
Nov 30, 2015 at 3:47 history edited Stanley Yao Xiao CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 30, 2015 at 3:44 comment added Vesselin Dimitrov Yes, of course. See Davenport, Lewis, Schinzel, Polynomials of certain special type, Acta Arithmetica IX, 1964 - or Schinzel's collected works.
Nov 30, 2015 at 3:33 history asked Stanley Yao Xiao CC BY-SA 3.0