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Nov 28, 2015 at 19:39 vote accept Arnold Neumaier
Nov 27, 2015 at 22:27 comment added Anthony Quas If the first $\limsup$ is $-\infty$, then along any infinite collection of solutions, the limit is $-\infty$ - in particular if you replace the second inequality by an equality.
Nov 27, 2015 at 17:50 comment added Arnold Neumaier why is the first limsup still $-\infty$ when only the second limsup is finite and the inequality is replaced by an equation?
Nov 27, 2015 at 2:36 history answered Anthony Quas CC BY-SA 3.0