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Nov 21, 2015 at 23:30 comment added Denis Hirschfeldt @Andrej Bauer The OP's two questions are not quite the same. The first one (roughly speaking) asks whether the class of sets that compute a completion of PA has measure 0. The second asks whether the set of completions of PA itself has measure 0. The answer to the second question could in principle depend on the coding. It turns out not to because the answer to the first question is positive.
Nov 21, 2015 at 16:45 comment added Andrej Bauer Is it obvious that the answer is independent of the Gödel coding?
Nov 21, 2015 at 3:07 comment added Per Alexandersson "While this seems implausible" feels like understatement of the year...
Nov 21, 2015 at 0:29 vote accept Abram Demski
Nov 21, 2015 at 0:18 answer added Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen timeline score: 11
Nov 21, 2015 at 0:12 vote accept Abram Demski
Nov 21, 2015 at 0:29
Nov 20, 2015 at 23:59 answer added Carl Mummert timeline score: 8
Nov 20, 2015 at 23:05 review First posts
Nov 20, 2015 at 23:47
Nov 20, 2015 at 23:05 history asked Abram Demski CC BY-SA 3.0