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Nov 21, 2015 at 5:15 vote accept mcsanchez
Nov 21, 2015 at 4:49 comment added mcsanchez Thanks @Serguei. Yes, for every $t$, the variance of the random variable $X_t$ should be defined.
Nov 20, 2015 at 11:05 answer added Michael timeline score: 1
Nov 20, 2015 at 10:23 comment added Serguei Popov You want an example where the variance always exists, right? Otherwise, you could take a r.v. $\xi$ with nonexistent 2nd moment, and let $X_t=\xi t$.
Nov 20, 2015 at 8:35 review First posts
Nov 20, 2015 at 8:39
Nov 20, 2015 at 8:31 history asked mcsanchez CC BY-SA 3.0