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Nov 18, 2015 at 12:48 comment added Dimitri Chikhladze @RyanBudney Yeah, I did not mean anything specific by the "ambient homotopy". Your argument however shows that the answer is negative when one choses it to be the ambient isotopy.
Nov 18, 2015 at 12:38 vote accept Dimitri Chikhladze
Nov 18, 2015 at 6:04 comment added Gustavo Granja @Ryan Budney: I don't think the OP is using "ambient homotopy" in any technical sense.
Nov 17, 2015 at 21:51 comment added Ryan Budney @PeterLeFanuLumsdaine: but it will certainly fail for embeddings also. For example, a 1-parameter family of embeddings usually does not come from an ambient homotopy (ambient isotopy in the topological category). For example, co-dimension two knots can all be "pulled tight" into unknots, via 1-parameter families of embeddings.
Nov 17, 2015 at 20:38 answer added Gustavo Granja timeline score: 4
Nov 17, 2015 at 17:50 comment added Dimitri Chikhladze @GustavoGranja Can you add more details?
Nov 17, 2015 at 16:28 comment added Gustavo Granja Now that the question has been changed, the answer is yes. If $f_t$ is an isotopy between $f$ and $g$ (say $f_0=f, f_1=g$) then $X_{f_t}$ will embed for each $t$. By homotopy invariance of bundles, for each $t$, $X_{f_t}$ is equivalent to $X_f$ as a bundle over $X$. The choice of identification is a choice of isomorphism between the pullback via the isotopy and the bundle $X_f \times[0,1]$.
Nov 17, 2015 at 15:26 history edited Dimitri Chikhladze CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 17, 2015 at 14:33 history edited Dimitri Chikhladze CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 17, 2015 at 14:28 history edited Dimitri Chikhladze CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 17, 2015 at 10:06 comment added Mark Grant There is a notion of when maps $f: Y\to X$ and $f': Y'\to X$ are homotopically equivalent. This means there is a homotopy equivalence $h: Y\to Y'$ making the evident triangle commute. I think that is the best you can hope for here.
Nov 17, 2015 at 1:31 comment added Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine @RyanBudney: if $f, g$ are supposed to be embeddings, then that rules out the constant map.
Nov 17, 2015 at 1:02 comment added Ryan Budney I don't there there's any reasonable (geometrically interesting) definition where your question would have an affirmative answer. Let $p$ be the double cover of the circle. Let $f$ and $g$ be maps from $S^0$ to $S^1$, one being a constant map and the other giving antipodal points. Any isomorphism of the pull-back's domains require choices that can not be done by some single isotopy in the target circle. You can compound this example by letting $f$ and $g$ have higher-dimensional domains.
Nov 17, 2015 at 0:54 history edited Dimitri Chikhladze CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 17, 2015 at 0:42 comment added Dimitri Chikhladze I mean maps $X_f \rightarrow E$ and $Y_f \rightarrow E$ which by Peter's comment still have different domains. In fact the question subsumes defining the appropriate notion of the ambient homotopy.
Nov 17, 2015 at 0:26 comment added Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine A priori, the pullbacks of f and g along p have different codomains $f^*E$, $g^*E$. To make sense of the question, one has to identify these somehow; one certainly can do so, since they’re pullbacks of homotopic maps into a bundle, but the answer may be sensitive to how one does so, and how nice your notion of ambient homotopy is.
Nov 17, 2015 at 0:25 comment added Ryan Budney Something in your question does not parse for me. The two pull-backs are maps $f^*p : E_f \to X$ and $g^*p : E_g \to X$ these are maps from two different spaces to $X$, so your definition of ambient homotopy does not make sense.
Nov 16, 2015 at 22:30 history asked Dimitri Chikhladze CC BY-SA 3.0