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Oct 20, 2015 at 21:17 comment added Peter Mueller A different (somewhat simpler) proof of the inequality is given in maths.lancs.ac.uk/~jameson/cyp.pdf (Prop. 1.20).
Oct 20, 2015 at 19:26 comment added Gerhard Paseman OK. If you change your mind, let me know by email. I will reference this MathOverflow answer in a write-up, and am willing to include real-life names (and some real beverages) to you and fedja as desired. Gerhard "Prefers An East Bay Visit" Paseman, 2015.10.20
Oct 20, 2015 at 18:40 vote accept Gerhard Paseman
Oct 20, 2015 at 18:40 comment added Gerhard Paseman For $n \gt 1$ and positive real $x$, the inequalities obtained starting with the displayed estimate of fedja are strict (check me on this, especialy if you replace $k \geq 1$ by $k \gt 0$). I don't need the strict version, but I did ask for it. If you email me, maybe we can get this cold beverage thing worked out. Gerhard "Giving This My Seventh Upvote" Paseman, 2015.10.20
Oct 20, 2015 at 18:25 history edited Venkataramana CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 20, 2015 at 18:23 comment added Gerhard Paseman This is looking good: I will accept it after I finish scrutinizing it. If you are able to manage an argument of even more algebraic flavor, I would be joyed. In any case, thank you: the efforts are worth at least a moderately priced hot beverage to you (fedja as well as Venkataramana). Come by the S.F. Bay Area to claim your prizes and (optional) face-to-face. Gerhard "Sorry, Gift Cards Not Awarded" Paseman, 2015.10.20
Oct 20, 2015 at 18:20 history edited Venkataramana CC BY-SA 3.0
added 2 characters in body
Oct 20, 2015 at 18:13 history edited Venkataramana CC BY-SA 3.0
added 2 characters in body
Oct 20, 2015 at 17:58 history edited Venkataramana CC BY-SA 3.0
included a full proof of the estimate due essentially to fedja
Oct 20, 2015 at 13:40 comment added Venkataramana @fedja: you seem to be right. That gives a clean proof.
Oct 20, 2015 at 11:12 comment added fedja Actually it does give the desired bound if one notices that for $0<x\le \frac12$, we have $0\le \sum_{d|n} \mu(d)x^d\le x$. Indeed, the left inequality is obvious even if we subtract everything from $\mu(1)x^1=x$ and the right inequality follows from the fact that once $x^q$ is subtracted for some prime factor $q|n$, all divisors divisible by $q$ cannot bring us back even if taken with the plus sign. Now, to switch from the sums to the products, just take $\log$, decompose it into the Taylor series, and apply this observation to $x=\frac 1{p^k}$ for $k=1,2,\dots$.
Oct 20, 2015 at 3:37 history answered Venkataramana CC BY-SA 3.0