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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
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Oct 8, 2015 at 7:26 vote accept Paolo Leonetti
Oct 7, 2015 at 17:27 answer added Ilya Bogdanov timeline score: 7
Oct 7, 2015 at 13:40 comment added Jochen Wengenroth Okay, I see the problem. For $k=2$ and $A_2=A_1^c$ it may happen that $f(A_2)=1$.
Oct 7, 2015 at 13:39 comment added Salvo Tringali @JochenWengenroth. Of course. But only if you can prove that $0 < f((A_1 \cup \cdots \cup A_k)^c) < 1$ for some $k$, in your construction. In principle, you don't have any information on the behaviour of $f(A^c)$ for $A \subseteq \mathbf N$ and $f(A) > 0$ (if $f(A) = 0$, it is seen that $f(A^c) = 1$).
Oct 7, 2015 at 13:30 comment added Jochen Wengenroth If you want to stop at a given $k$, just take $A_k=\mathbb N \setminus (A_1\cup\cdots\cup A_{k-1})$.
Oct 7, 2015 at 12:24 comment added Paolo Leonetti Why do you expect to stop in a finite number of steps?
Oct 7, 2015 at 12:20 comment added Jochen Wengenroth What's wrong with this rather trivial construction: Choose $A_1\subseteq \mathbb N$ with $f(A_1)=1/2$. Because of subadditivity, $1=f(A_1 \cup A_1^c)\le f(A_1)+f(A_1^c)$ so that $f(A_1^c)\ge 1/2$. Next choose $A_2\subseteq A_1^c$ with $f(A_2)=1/4$. As above $f(A_1^c \cup A_2^c)\ge 1/4$. Continue in that way.
Oct 7, 2015 at 9:06 history edited Paolo Leonetti CC BY-SA 3.0
added 185 characters in body
Oct 7, 2015 at 9:01 history asked Paolo Leonetti CC BY-SA 3.0