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Oct 6, 2015 at 5:13 history edited tmh CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 6, 2015 at 5:12 comment added tmh Right, sorry, I was misremembering the construction.
Oct 6, 2015 at 0:28 comment added Anthony Quas I don't think this is the case. I believe the shift-invariant means are produced using the Hahn-Banach theorem: you start off with defining a linear functional on the set of things that do have a limit; and then use Hahn-Banach (plus lots of axiom of choice) to extend it to the rest. To see the means are not subsequential, once you know the subsequence, it's pretty easy to find a set so that you don't get convergence along the subsequence.
Oct 5, 2015 at 23:23 comment added tmh At least in the case that $\theta$ is a subsequential limit of the functions $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{x\in[0,n]}1(x\in A)$, it is a limit of measurable functions and hence measurable (the same subsequence is used for every $A$). I think that every shift-invariant mean on $\mathbb{N}$ will arise as a similar sort of limit, giving measurability, but I'm not an expert on this.
Oct 5, 2015 at 15:01 comment added Anthony Quas Don't you need measurability of $\theta$ for $\theta(A^+)$ and $\theta(A^-)$ to be constant?
Oct 5, 2015 at 0:38 history answered tmh CC BY-SA 3.0