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Sep 30, 2015 at 10:19 comment added shasta Yes. The interesting question between those two extremes is the case of Lipschitz equivalence (for Banach spaces). Again much work has been done on this case, e.g. by Lindenstrauss et al.
Sep 30, 2015 at 10:06 comment added usr203050 My guess for the second part is that the differential at some point (or may be at any point) can give an isomorphism between the two spaces.
Sep 30, 2015 at 9:57 vote accept usr203050
Sep 30, 2015 at 9:54 answer added shasta timeline score: 11
Sep 30, 2015 at 9:51 comment added usr203050 My guess is that it is true in all spaces, since it is true for finite-dimentional ones. But I cannot give a proof or a disproof.
Sep 30, 2015 at 9:49 comment added Simon Rose I would guess that the first question is false, simply on the grounds that it is pretty trivially true for finite dimensional ones, so it's probably false for arbitrary vector spaces.
Sep 30, 2015 at 9:19 history asked usr203050 CC BY-SA 3.0