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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Sep 29, 2015 at 18:39 vote accept Sylvain JULIEN
Sep 29, 2015 at 17:33 comment added GH from MO @AnthonyQuas: Actually, the statement is true, see my response.
Sep 29, 2015 at 17:32 history edited GH from MO
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Sep 29, 2015 at 17:32 answer added GH from MO timeline score: 20
Sep 29, 2015 at 17:07 comment added GH from MO Questions like "can proof X be modified to prove statement Y" are not too fortunate in general. Just ask: "Is statement Y true?" Then, as a side remark, you can mention that perhaps proof X can be modified to prove statement Y.
Sep 29, 2015 at 16:24 comment added Anthony Quas Seems very unlikely. The G-T theorem essentially relies on lower bounds for prime numbers in an interval. To know that a number is 1-central, you need upper bounds as well - you need to know that $n\pm i$ is not prime for $0<i<k$ (an upper bound on the characteristic function of primes) and the $n\pm k$ is prime (a lower bound).
Sep 29, 2015 at 16:14 history asked Sylvain JULIEN CC BY-SA 3.0