Timeline for Exists $f \in I(X)$ such that $f(x) \neq 0$, $f(y) \neq 0$
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Sep 29, 2015 at 6:48 | comment | added | Georges Elencwajg | Dear @agensky, let me be specific: I claim that neither Hartshorne nor any other algebraic geometry book alludes to Tietze's extension theorem in this context . Users are welcome to give a reference contradicting this claim :-) There have been several analogous interpolation questions on Mathematics StackExchange and they are always answered in an explicit ad hoc way, just as Chanler did in a comment to this question. I answered this question in order to show the power of this underappreciated extension result, which for example also yields a geometric proof of the Chinese Remainder Theorem. | |
| Sep 29, 2015 at 3:05 | vote | accept | CommunityBot | ||
| Sep 28, 2015 at 23:26 | comment | added | meh | @ Elencwajg - are you sure Hartshorne doesn't mention it. I have a dim memory ( in general and of this fact) | |
| Sep 28, 2015 at 22:17 | history | answered | Georges Elencwajg | CC BY-SA 3.0 |