Timeline for Exists $f \in I(X)$ such that $f(x) \neq 0$, $f(y) \neq 0$
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Sep 29, 2015 at 3:05 | vote | accept | CommunityBot | ||
| Sep 28, 2015 at 22:17 | answer | added | Georges Elencwajg | timeline score: 7 | |
| Sep 28, 2015 at 21:16 | comment | added | Pax | Choose $g\in I(X)$ such that $g(x)\neq 0$, since if $I(X)(x)=0$, $x\in X$, and likewise $f(y)\neq 0$. Let $x$ and $y$ differ in the first coordinate without loss of generality, by application of a rotation. Then the function $(x-x_1)g(x)+(x-y_1)f(x)\in I(X)$ then has the desired properties. | |
| Sep 28, 2015 at 20:57 | history | asked | user76167 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |