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Sep 22, 2015 at 6:59 vote accept Aaron Schild
Sep 22, 2015 at 6:59
Sep 22, 2015 at 6:59 comment added Aaron Schild Isn't the length of the shortest path always at most 1 in this case, since you can just follow the 1 to $\infty$ edge with weight at most 1? $q_i$ is the probability that the length of the edge is 0, not that it is $\infty$.
Sep 22, 2015 at 6:48 vote accept Aaron Schild
Sep 22, 2015 at 6:57
Sep 22, 2015 at 6:36 history answered Anthony Quas CC BY-SA 3.0