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Sep 21, 2015 at 20:00 vote accept Julian Newman
Sep 21, 2015 at 19:24 answer added Nate Eldredge timeline score: 2
Sep 20, 2015 at 17:24 comment added Nate Eldredge A thought: is it possible for a Borel order to have a set isomorphic to $\omega_1$? It seems unlikely. If not, then take a cofinal well-ordered subset $C$ of $A$, which must then be countable. Fix some $x_0 \in A$ and then you have $A \cap [x,\infty) = \bigcup_{y \in C} [x,y]$ which is Borel. Applying the same argument to the reverse order, $A \cap (-\infty, x]$ is also Borel.
Sep 20, 2015 at 16:39 history asked Julian Newman CC BY-SA 3.0