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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:19 history edited CommunityBot
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Sep 21, 2015 at 14:34 answer added Carlo Beenakker timeline score: 1
Sep 20, 2015 at 18:02 history edited zhoraster CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 20, 2015 at 18:01 comment added zhoraster @Michael, maybe I was not very careful writing this. I don't claim that the distance is normally distributed, but rather that the neighbor is. The neighbor is a two dimensional vector, whose length has Rayleigh distribution with cdf $1-e^{-ax^2}$. But the vector does have normal distribution. I copied the paragraph from my MathSE post in order to clarify.
Sep 20, 2015 at 17:49 comment added Michael The $e^{-x^2}$ function is associated with the Gaussian density. In your link, the $e^{-x^2}$ is associated with a CDF function. I do not think it is correct to call your distance "normally distributed," even if you overlook the non-negative issue.
Sep 20, 2015 at 17:41 comment added Michael Normal random variables can be negative, while distances cannot...
Sep 20, 2015 at 6:13 comment added Anthony Quas This is not really an answer, but a possibly related reference. Terry Soo and co-authors have some papers where they study "Poisson thinning". That is, they construct for fixed $\mu<\lambda$ a deterministic measurable map which sends an instance of a Poisson process with rate $\lambda$ to an instance of a Poisson process with rate $\mu$. This is all about "extracting randomness" from PPs; maybe the fact that you mention is used somewhere. (NB: of course non-deterministic Poisson thinning is simple)
Sep 20, 2015 at 5:37 history asked zhoraster CC BY-SA 3.0