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Sep 20, 2015 at 12:50 vote accept Hugo Chapdelaine
Sep 19, 2015 at 16:29 comment added Jason Starr Maybe the only counterexample is when $n$ equals $2$ and $d$ equals $3$ ($d=2$ does not seem to be a counterexample).
Sep 19, 2015 at 16:28 answer added abx timeline score: 2
Sep 19, 2015 at 16:15 answer added Mohan timeline score: 1
Sep 19, 2015 at 15:04 comment added Jason Starr What you write is obviously wrong when $n=2$ and $d=2$ or $d=3$. One basic problem is your hypothesis that every morphism $\phi$ is given as the restriction to $H$ of an $(n+1)$-tuple of homogeneous polynomials.
Sep 19, 2015 at 14:00 history asked Hugo Chapdelaine CC BY-SA 3.0