Timeline for What are examples when the equality of some invariants is good enough in algebraic topology?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
14 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
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| Sep 21, 2015 at 11:27 | comment | added | David White | I like the new title much better. | |
| Sep 21, 2015 at 6:49 | answer | added | Qiaochu Yuan | timeline score: 6 | |
| Sep 21, 2015 at 6:21 | answer | added | Neil Strickland | timeline score: 7 | |
| Sep 21, 2015 at 5:09 | answer | added | Greg Friedman | timeline score: 7 | |
| Sep 18, 2015 at 15:49 | answer | added | David C | timeline score: 20 | |
| Sep 18, 2015 at 14:41 | comment | added | Vitali Kapovitch | @Najib I just mean that if two simply connected spaces have isomorphic minimal models then they are rationally homotopy equivalent. I view the isomorphism class of a minimal model as an algebraic invariant of space here. | |
| Sep 18, 2015 at 14:34 | answer | added | archipelago | timeline score: 11 | |
| Sep 18, 2015 at 14:28 | comment | added | Najib Idrissi | @archipelago What I mean is that if a space $X$ is an Eilenberg-MacLane space of type $K(A,n)$ (and by this I mean $\pi_n(X) = A$, $\pi_{k \neq n}(X) = 0$), then it is weakly homotopy equivalent to all the other spaces of type $K(A,n)$. This is not a priori evident, and the analogue statement for homology isn't true (as homology spheres show), for example. | |
| Sep 18, 2015 at 14:18 | history | made wiki | Post Made Community Wiki by Todd Trimble | ||
| Sep 18, 2015 at 14:05 | comment | added | Najib Idrissi | @VitaliKapovitch Can you elaborate (about minimal models)? Do you mean the theorem "if two minimal models are quasi-isomorphic then they are isomorphic"? | |
| Sep 18, 2015 at 13:53 | history | edited | Najib Idrissi | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 43 characters in body; edited title
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| Sep 18, 2015 at 13:51 | comment | added | Vitali Kapovitch | I agree with Dylan. what you really are asking is when some algebraic topology invariants are complete invariants for a given class of objects and it would be less confusing if you state it using that terminology. Minimal models in rational homotopy theory is one example. | |
| Sep 18, 2015 at 12:00 | history | asked | Najib Idrissi | CC BY-SA 3.0 |