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Nov 2, 2015 at 0:14 answer added Greg Lawler timeline score: 10
Sep 18, 2015 at 17:17 answer added Nate Eldredge timeline score: 3
Sep 18, 2015 at 6:52 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 4
Sep 18, 2015 at 2:04 comment added Will Sawin Clearly $\alpha$ can be at most $1/2$, because $\mathbb P^x(E) \geq \sqrt{x}$. View the random walk as taking place in the complex plane, with $x$ a real number. Consider the harmonic function $\operatorname{Re}\sqrt{B_t}$ taking the principal branch with a cut at the negative real axis. This is a martingale until $B_t$ touches the negative real axis, takes a value of $0$ on that axis, at most $1$ on the unit circle, and is $\sqrt{x}$ at the start, so the probability that $B_t$ touches the unit circle without ever touching the negative real axis is at least $\sqrt{x}$.
Sep 18, 2015 at 1:49 comment added Will Sawin Does the Brownian motion start at $x$?
Sep 18, 2015 at 1:15 comment added Joseph O'Rourke Another related question: "Twisted random walks."
Sep 18, 2015 at 0:23 answer added ofer zeitouni timeline score: 9
Sep 17, 2015 at 21:56 comment added Anthony Quas In some sense, the question is really asking for the probability that BM does encircle 0 (i.e. what is really needed is a lower bound for the probability that 0 gets encircled).
Sep 17, 2015 at 21:14 comment added Nate Eldredge Related: mathoverflow.net/questions/202944/…
Sep 17, 2015 at 21:13 comment added Nate Eldredge I changed the title to something a little more self-contained. Feel free to edit further.
Sep 17, 2015 at 21:13 history edited Nate Eldredge CC BY-SA 3.0
better title?
Sep 17, 2015 at 21:03 comment added Nate Eldredge I guess a preliminary question would be, how to see that $E$ is measurable?
Sep 17, 2015 at 19:11 review First posts
Sep 17, 2015 at 19:12
Sep 17, 2015 at 19:07 history asked user71299 CC BY-SA 3.0