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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Sep 24, 2015 at 3:03 review Close votes
Sep 25, 2015 at 12:18
Sep 18, 2015 at 3:39 answer added Xiaoyu He timeline score: 2
Sep 17, 2015 at 17:53 comment added Jason Eliot Yes, even if measurable is not enough, it should be no problem. In the original post it is mentioned that we can equivalently go to compact convex sets. Thank you.
Sep 17, 2015 at 3:47 comment added Xiaoyu He Your equivalence argument is not too hard to fix by first going to compact convex sets and then packing with circles as in the answer from the previous question.
Sep 17, 2015 at 3:25 comment added Xiaoyu He (Lebesgue) measurable sets with positive measure do not necessarily contain any disks with positive radius at all, e.g. unit disk - rational points. Nevertheless your circle problem seems interesting in its own right.
Sep 17, 2015 at 3:19 review Close votes
Sep 17, 2015 at 11:52
Sep 17, 2015 at 2:18 review First posts
Sep 17, 2015 at 5:36
Sep 17, 2015 at 2:13 history asked Jason Eliot CC BY-SA 3.0