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Sep 16, 2015 at 22:51 vote accept Todd Leason
Sep 16, 2015 at 22:13 history edited Todd Leason CC BY-SA 3.0
The inequality $\mu(\mathbb{Z}G) \le \mu(G)$ needs $G$ finite. Otherwise $G=\mathbb{Z}$ is a counterexample.
Sep 16, 2015 at 22:03 answer added Benjamin Steinberg timeline score: 6
Sep 16, 2015 at 20:19 history asked Todd Leason CC BY-SA 3.0