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(I asked this in economic forum without success.)

(I asked this in economic forum without success.)

If in a given country $A$ the expences in the production of a good $G_2$ in comparison with another good, $G_1$, is less that in a country $B$, then it is more profitable (for both countries) to produce $G_2$ in the country $A$ (and to trade).

If in a given country $A$ the expences in the production of a good $G_2$ in comparison with another good, $G_1$, is less than in a country $B$, then it is more profitable (for both countries) to produce $G_2$ in the country $A$ (and to trade).

In which extent the Ricardo examples explain the problems?

In which extent the Ricardo examples (without further theory, just examples) explain the problems?