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Apr 27, 2022 at 16:27 comment added Bruno I have no math reputation, still I asked J. Oesterlé. The claimed result is a typo, cf my comment mathoverflow.net/questions/80865/….
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Sep 11, 2015 at 8:07 comment added joro @WillJagy Why not try to debug the printsay? Hypothetically (flawed) proof may really exist. Maybe someone of sufficient math reputation spam Oesterlé?
Sep 10, 2015 at 20:09 comment added Will Jagy Oh, and directly after his message, I put a reply calling his attention to this question.
Sep 10, 2015 at 20:07 comment added Will Jagy Yeah, I looked briefly at both joro's recent questions after his message to me.
Sep 10, 2015 at 20:06 comment added Will Jagy hmmm... not exactly hearsay, printsay perhaps
Sep 10, 2015 at 20:06 comment added Igor Rivin @WillJagy there was a related question by joro (where $q$ is not prime but a primorial number (the product of the first $k$ primes). There, it seems that the observed result is even better than $q \log^2 q,$ more like $q \log q.$
Sep 10, 2015 at 19:55 comment added Will Jagy Right, I guess I did not make that clear. Either way, I was entirely reporting hearsay, I figured a new question might get traction with people who have some idea how to do this stuff themselves, and that has happened.
Sep 10, 2015 at 19:51 history answered Igor Rivin CC BY-SA 3.0