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Sep 2, 2015 at 5:29 comment added Andreas Thom @YiftachBarnea: Thanks for pointing this out!
Sep 1, 2015 at 18:33 comment added Yiftach Barnea It is worth mentioning that Jan-Christoph Schlage-Puchta proved a similar result independently, see his paper: A p-group with positive rank gradient. J. Group Theory 15 (2012), no. 2, 261–270. You might also like to look at a joint paper with me: On p-deficiency in groups. J. Group Theory 16 (2013), no. 4, 497–517. (Both can be found on the Arxiv.)
Sep 1, 2015 at 15:33 comment added Joël Thanks, Benjamin and Ycor, and Derek. Things are clear now.
Sep 1, 2015 at 15:26 comment added YCor @DerekHolt: no, many torsion-free groups are residually-$p$ (= residually a finite $p$-group). The correct interpretation of Andreas's post is a $p$-group which is also residually finite (and hence residually-$p$)
Sep 1, 2015 at 15:11 comment added Benjamin Steinberg p-group means each element has order a p-power. It need not be finite. Like the Grigorchuk group
Sep 1, 2015 at 14:56 comment added Joël I am still confused. What is a $p$-group? For me it is a finite group of order a power of $p$.
Sep 1, 2015 at 14:46 comment added Derek Holt @Joel But I think "(residually finite) $p$-group" is equivalent to "residually (finite $p$-group)".
Sep 1, 2015 at 14:37 comment added Joël I am not completely sure how to parse the statement of the theorem. Should "residually finite $p$-group" be read together, meaning that the intersection of subgroups of index a power of $p$ is trivial ?
Sep 1, 2015 at 13:59 vote accept Pablo
Sep 1, 2015 at 13:53 history answered Andreas Thom CC BY-SA 3.0