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Aug 29, 2015 at 15:32 vote accept Jeremy Teitelbaum
Aug 29, 2015 at 15:30 answer added D. Kelleher timeline score: 3
Aug 29, 2015 at 14:55 comment added zhoraster Why do you need $\mathbb R^n$? You have to look at just one coordinate, which moves as a one-dimensional Brownian motion. And for the latter, the answer is very well-known. If I've misinterpreted the question and you are asking about the time of hitting of any coordinate hyperplane, just take a minimum of $n$ independent hitting times.
Aug 29, 2015 at 13:12 history asked Jeremy Teitelbaum CC BY-SA 3.0