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Timeline for Injective subset function

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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Aug 25, 2015 at 10:11 comment added bof You are right that it still works for infinite $X$ if $F(x)$ is always finite. But of course it's trivially false as stated, with no finiteness assumption. I wonder if the OP knows that and just forgot to mention finiteness, or if he really wanted it to be true with no restrictions?
Aug 25, 2015 at 8:13 vote accept CommunityBot
Sep 2, 2015 at 16:36
Aug 25, 2015 at 8:02 history answered Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 3.0