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Aug 23, 2015 at 1:53 comment added Daniel Litt Sándor is correct of course; this doesn't work. Thanks though!
Aug 22, 2015 at 17:03 comment added Sándor Kovács No, it isn't. That morphism is only on $\mathbb P^1$ and it maps to the restriction of $T_V$ to $\mathbb P^1$. So, you really just get a morpohism $T_{\mathbb{P}^1}\rightarrow T_V\left|_{\mathbb P^1}\right.$. It also contradicts the Andreatta and Wiśniewski result mentioned, so if this were correct, that theorem would be toast.
Aug 22, 2015 at 16:35 history answered P.J CC BY-SA 3.0