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Aug 20, 2015 at 1:32 comment added Tom Leinster For all we currently know, there might be an inequality the other way round too (at least, for a finite family of finite graphs). That's exactly Hedetniemi's conjecture. Here's a categorical account: golem.ph.utexas.edu/category/2014/12/…
Aug 19, 2015 at 7:45 vote accept student9909
Sep 1, 2015 at 17:12
Aug 19, 2015 at 7:32 answer added Dominic van der Zypen timeline score: 2
Aug 19, 2015 at 7:29 history asked student9909 CC BY-SA 3.0