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Aug 15, 2015 at 19:09 comment added sergey @ Mostafa: one can do it for more or less general quadratics. See the edit to my previous reply.
Aug 15, 2015 at 18:34 comment added Mostafa - Free Palestine Very nice argument! Can you give a similar proof for the case of irreducible quadratic polynomials with real roots, like $x^2-2$?
Aug 15, 2015 at 16:23 history answered Fedor Petrov CC BY-SA 3.0