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May 6, 2017 at 19:05 answer added Michał Kukieła timeline score: 2
Feb 21, 2017 at 7:10 history edited Francesco Polizzi CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 4, 2015 at 10:24 vote accept Dominic van der Zypen
Aug 4, 2015 at 10:18 answer added Francesco Polizzi timeline score: 31
Aug 4, 2015 at 10:16 answer added Adam Przeździecki timeline score: 19
Aug 4, 2015 at 10:06 comment added Dominic van der Zypen @AlexDegtyarev No, not necessarily via $\varphi$, just homeomorphic via some homeomorphism. - JoshuaErde, this sounds promising!
Aug 4, 2015 at 10:04 comment added Alex Degtyarev Homeomorphic via $\varphi$?
Aug 4, 2015 at 9:36 comment added Joshua Erde I remember seeing a talk on something related to this, and I think a countably branching infinite tree T and a union of countably many copies of T have this property (mapping vertices to vertices). However I couldn't reprduce the exact details.
Aug 4, 2015 at 8:49 history asked Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 3.0