iI was taught that it is a property of correlation coefficient rthat $r$ the correlation of X$X$ with Y$Y$ is the same as of Y$Y$ with X$X$.
(from the course pdf file with notes ):
LO 5. Note that correlation coecientcoefficient (R$R$, also called Pearson's R$R$) has the following properties:
- the magnitude (absolute value) of the correlation coecientcoefficient measures the strength of the linear association between two numerical variables
- the sign of the correlation coecientcoefficient indicates the direction of association
- the correlation coecientcoefficient is always between -1 and 1, -1 indicating perfect negative linear association, +1 indicating perfect positive linear association, and 0 indicating no linear relationship
- the correlation coecientcoefficient is unitless
- since the correlation coecientcoefficient is unitless, it is not aectedaffected by changes in the center or scale of either variable (such as unit conversions)
- the correlation of X$X$ with Y$Y$ is the same as of Y$Y$ with X$X$
- the correlation coecientcoefficient is sensitive to outliers
But since then ,i can not I cannot find any other reference to this,that that agrees with the symmetry thing... Maybe someone has some explanation?(not about intersect and slope,but about the r coefficient,? Thanks in advance.