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Oct 22, 2015 at 13:19 history edited Brando CC BY-SA 3.0
Corrected an error in the original question.
Jul 22, 2015 at 18:14 vote accept Brando
Jul 22, 2015 at 17:58 vote accept Brando
Jul 22, 2015 at 18:14
Jul 22, 2015 at 11:51 answer added Peter Mueller timeline score: 27
Jul 21, 2015 at 17:32 comment added Pasten I think that using the suggested results will only lead to complicated issues of rationality and a lengthy case-by-case analysis on the pairs in the paper of Bilu and Tichy. See Theorem 1 in: H. Davenport, D. J. Lewis, A. Schinzel, Polynomials of certain special types. Acta Arith. 9 (1964), 107-116 for a result better suited for this problem.
Jul 21, 2015 at 3:51 comment added David E Speyer See mathoverflow.net/questions/105304/… for more on Voloch's comment.
Jul 20, 2015 at 20:43 comment added Felipe Voloch In particular, a paper of Bilu and Tichy (Acta Arith, XCV 2000) is relevant.
Jul 20, 2015 at 20:41 comment added Felipe Voloch The curve $f(x)=g(y)$ will have infinitely many integral points so will be reducible or have genus zero. Google irreducibility of $f(x)-g(y)$ for many papers on this.
Jul 20, 2015 at 19:53 comment added Jason Starr What about $f(x) = x(x+1)$ and $g(y) = 2y$?
Jul 20, 2015 at 19:52 history asked Brando CC BY-SA 3.0