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May 17, 2017 at 18:11 history edited Alexandre Eremenko CC BY-SA 3.0
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S May 17, 2017 at 17:01 history suggested Adam CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 17, 2017 at 16:53 review Suggested edits
S May 17, 2017 at 17:01
Jul 16, 2015 at 22:51 history edited Alexandre Eremenko CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 16, 2015 at 7:10 history edited Alexandre Eremenko CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 15, 2015 at 22:37 comment added Joe Silverman Actually, the assumption that $p(x)$ has integer coefficients and that $a$ is an integer has some relevance, namely either $a$ is preperiodic, or it is in the domain of attraction of infinity. So the only way for it to be in $K(p)$ is if it is actually preperiodic.
Jul 15, 2015 at 20:49 history edited Alexandre Eremenko CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 15, 2015 at 20:44 history answered Alexandre Eremenko CC BY-SA 3.0