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Jun 15, 2020 at 7:27 history edited CommunityBot
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Jul 17, 2015 at 14:35 answer added Jean Duchon timeline score: 0
Jul 17, 2015 at 12:58 history edited F. H. CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 17, 2015 at 9:22 history rollback F. H.
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Jul 16, 2015 at 20:50 history edited F. H. CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 16, 2015 at 13:49 history edited F. H. CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 16, 2015 at 12:59 history edited F. H. CC BY-SA 3.0
Corrected flaw and revised question.
Jul 14, 2015 at 12:02 answer added Jean Duchon timeline score: 1
Jul 14, 2015 at 7:26 history edited F. H. CC BY-SA 3.0
Corrected error in citation.
Jul 13, 2015 at 15:47 comment added Joonas Ilmavirta The claim you wish to conclude is false. Take a compactly supported smooth $u$ so that $u(0)=0$ but $\nabla u(0)\neq0$. If $p\geq1$ is not a natural number, then there is $s>0$ so that $u^p\notin H^s(\mathbb R^n)$ (because classical derivatives fail to exist to high orders) although $u\in H^s(\mathbb R^n)$ for all $s$.
Jul 13, 2015 at 15:14 history asked F. H. CC BY-SA 3.0