Timeline for The sign of the mean curvature on convex cones in three dimensions
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jul 16, 2016 at 1:24 | history | edited | Sean Lawton | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Minor edits.
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| Jul 10, 2015 at 8:09 | vote | accept | poupy | ||
| Jul 9, 2015 at 11:08 | comment | added | Daniel Moskovich | I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it is no longer relevant, as the person asking has already found the answer, as mentioned in the comments. | |
| Jul 8, 2015 at 14:32 | comment | added | poupy | Thanks! "The same as in the plane" is not very accessible for me (my geometric education was very limited) but I found a full proof in the recent preprint arxiv.org/abs/1408.5523 (Proposition 2.1). | |
| Jul 8, 2015 at 10:19 | review | Close votes | |||
| Jul 9, 2015 at 14:23 | |||||
| Jul 8, 2015 at 10:06 | answer | added | Joonas Ilmavirta | timeline score: 4 | |
| Jul 8, 2015 at 10:02 | comment | added | Anton Petrunin | The answer is yes. Essentailly you need to prove convexity of the intersection, say $F$, of your cone with the unit sphere. Note that the mean curvature of the cone can equals to the curvature of $\partial F$. Then you can proceed the same way as in the plane. | |
| Jul 8, 2015 at 9:16 | review | First posts | |||
| Jul 8, 2015 at 9:25 | |||||
| Jul 8, 2015 at 9:10 | history | asked | poupy | CC BY-SA 3.0 |